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The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) CAS-005 test is essential for IT professionals who wish to demonstrate their advanced proficiency in incident response, risk management, and enterprise security. It is highly regarded for senior-level roles such as Security Architect or Senior Security Engineer since it identifies applicants who can effectively develop and implement robust security solutions across complex contexts.
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Step By Step Details For CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam
Recommended Experience: maximum 10 years of general IT experience is required with 5 years of hands-on technical security experience.
CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Objectives
Domain
Description
Percentage
Security Architecture
Implement and integrate secure enterprise architecture, secure cloud, and virtualization technologies.
29%
Security Operations
Apply advanced techniques to manage risks, respond to incidents, and implement threat detection.
30%
Security Engineering and Cryptography
Implement cryptographic technologies and security solutions for data protection.
26%
Governance, Risk, and Compliance
Manage risk and ensure compliance with organizational and regulatory frameworks.
15%
CAS-005 Exam Information
Details
Information
Number of Questions
Maximum of 90 questions
Types of Questions
Multiple-choice and performance-based questions (PBQs)
Time Limit
165 minutes
Passing Score
Performance-based criteria is used in CASP+ exams. They do not have a scaled score like other CompTIA exams, as they are pass/fail based on performance.
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Related Exam
Passitcerts Providing most updated CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Certification Question Answers. Here are a few exams:
A company lined an email service provider called my-email.com to deliver company emails.
The company stalled having several issues during the migration. A security engineer is
troubleshooting and observes the following configuration snippet:
Which of the following should the security engineer modify to fix the issue? (Select two).
A. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.111
B. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dmarc ip4:192.168.1.10 include:my-email.com - all"
C. The srvo1 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the email server
D. The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10
E. The TXT record must be changed to "v=dkim ip4:l92.168.1.11 include my-email.com - ell"
F. The TXT record must be Changed to "v=dkim ip4:192.168.1.10 include:email-all"
G. The srv01 A record must be changed to a type CNAME record pointing to the web01 server
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The security engineer should modify the following to fix the email migration issues:
Email CNAME Record: The email CNAME record must be changed to a type A record pointing to 192.168.1.10. This is because CNAME records should not be
used where an IP address (A record) is required. Changing it to an A record
ensures direct pointing to the correct IP.
TXT Record for DMARC: The TXT record must be changed to "v=dmarc
ip4:192.168.1.10 include
com -all". This ensures proper configuration of DMARC (Domain-based Message
Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) to include the correct IP address and the email
service provider domain.
uk.co.certification.simulator.questionpool.PList@492af720
References:
Question # 2
A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the
research output. Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to
recommend?
A. Dark web monitoring
B. Threat intelligence platform
C. Honeypots
D. Continuous adversary emulation
Answer: B
Explanation: Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting, processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape. Why a Threat Intelligence Platform? Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable insights. Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats, helping the organization take proactive measures. Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response, allowing the security team to focus on critical issues. Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats. Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and operationalization capabilities: A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks
comprehensive operationalization.
C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not
for broader threat intelligence.
D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for
integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Threat Intelligence Platforms," Gartner Research
NIST Special Publication 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
Question # 3
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities
on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to
quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will
allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?
A. SAST scan reports
B. Centralized SBoM
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying
vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a
comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a
container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities.
Why Centralized SBoM?
Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their
versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments.
Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected
containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.
Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous
monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.
Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a
clear and auditable record of all software components used.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:
A. SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all
components in container images.
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security
benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory.
D. Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as
efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Software Bill of Materials (SBoM)," NIST Documentation
"Managing Container Security with SBoM," OWASP
Question # 4
A security engineer is developing a solution to meet the following requirements?
• All endpoints should be able to establish telemetry with a SIEM.
• All endpoints should be able to be integrated into the XDR platform.
• SOC services should be able to monitor the XDR platform
Which of the following should the security engineer implement to meet the requirements?
A. CDR and central logging
B. HIDS and vTPM
C. WAF and syslog
D. HIPS and host-based firewall
Answer: D
Explanation: To meet the requirements of having all endpoints establish telemetry with a
SIEM, integrate into an XDR platform, and allow SOC services to monitor the XDR
platform, the best approach is to implement Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) and a host-based firewall. HIPS can provide detailed telemetry data to the SIEM and can be
integrated into the XDR platform for comprehensive monitoring and response. The hostbased
firewall ensures that only authorized traffic is allowed, providing an additional layer
of security.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes the roles of HIPS and host-based
firewalls in endpoint security and their integration with SIEM and XDR platforms.
NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention
Systems (IDPS)": Highlights the capabilities of HIPS for security monitoring and
incident response.
"Network Security Monitoring" by Richard Bejtlich: Discusses the integration of
various security tools, including HIPS and firewalls, for effective security
monitoring.
Question # 5
An organization is looking for gaps in its detection capabilities based on the APTs that may
target the industry Which of the following should the security analyst use to perform threat
modeling?
A. ATT&CK
B. OWASP
C. CAPEC
D. STRIDE
Answer: A
Explanation: The ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge)
framework is the best tool for a security analyst to use for threat modeling when looking for
gaps in detection capabilities based on Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs) that may
target the industry. Here’s why:
Comprehensive Framework: ATT&CK provides a detailed and structured
repository of known adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world
observations. It helps organizations understand how attackers operate and what
techniques they might use.
Gap Analysis: By mapping existing security controls against the ATT&CK matrix,
analysts can identify which tactics and techniques are not adequately covered by
current detection and mitigation measures.
Industry Relevance: The ATT&CK framework is continuously updated with the
latest threat intelligence, making it highly relevant for industries facing APT threats.
It provides insights into specific APT groups and their preferred methods of attack.
References:
Question # 6
A software development team requires valid data for internal tests. Company regulations,
however do not allow the use of this data in cleartext. Which of the following solutions best
meet these requirements?
A. Configuring data hashing
B. Deploying tokenization
C. Replacing data with null record
D. Implementing data obfuscation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called
tokens, that can be used within the internal tests. The original data is stored securely and
can be retrieved if necessary. This approach allows the software development team to
work with data that appears realistic and valid without exposing the actual sensitive
information.
Configuring data hashing (Option A) is not suitable for test data as it transforms the data
into a fixed-length value that is not usable in the same way as the original data. Replacing
data with null records (Option C) is not useful as it does not provide valid data for testing.
Data obfuscation (Option D) could be an alternative but might not meet the regulatory
requirements as effectively as tokenization.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-57 Part 1 Rev. 5, "Recommendation for Key Management"
PCI DSS Tokenization Guidelines
Question # 7
A news organization wants to implement workflows that allow users to request that
untruthful data be retraced and scrubbed from online publications to comply with the right
to be forgotten Which of the following regulations is the organization most likely trying to
address'
A. GDPR
B. COPPA
C. CCPA
D. DORA
Answer: A Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the regulation most likely being addressed by the news organization. GDPR includes provisions for the "right to be forgotten," which allows individuals to request the deletion of personal data that is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected. This regulation aims to protect the privacy and personal data of individuals within the European Union. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers GDPR and its requirements, including the right to be forgotten. GDPR official documentation: Details the rights of individuals, including data erasure and the right to be forgotten. "GDPR: A Practical Guide to the General Data Protection Regulation" by IT Governance Privacy Team: Provides a comprehensive overview of GDPR compliance, including workflows for data deletion requests.
Question # 8
An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture A systems administrator must
increase the effectiveness of the organization's context-aware access system. Which of the
following is the best way to improve the effectiveness of the system?
A. Secure zone architecture
B. Always-on VPN
C. Accurate asset inventory
D. Microsegmentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a critical strategy within Zero Trust architecture that enhances
context-aware access systems by dividing the network into smaller, isolated segments.
This reduces the attack surface and limits lateral movement of attackers within the network.
It ensures that even if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily access
other segments. This granular approach to network security is essential for enforcing strict
access controls and monitoring within Zero Trust environments.
Reference: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide, Chapter on Zero Trust Security, Section on
Microsegmentation and Network Segmentation.
Question # 9
Third parties notified a company's security team about vulnerabilities in the company's
application. The security team determined these vulnerabilities were previously disclosed in
third-party libraries. Which of the following solutions best addresses the reported
vulnerabilities?
A. Using laC to include the newest dependencies
B. Creating a bug bounty program
C. Implementing a continuous security assessment program
D. Integrating a SASI tool as part of the pipeline
Answer: D
Explanation: The best solution to address reported vulnerabilities in third-party libraries is
integrating a Static Application Security Testing (SAST) tool as part of the development
pipeline. Here’s why:
Early Detection: SAST tools analyze source code for vulnerabilities before the
code is compiled. This allows developers to identify and fix security issues early in
the development process.
Continuous Security: By integrating SAST tools into the CI/CD pipeline, the
organization ensures continuous security assessment of the codebase, including
third-party libraries, with each code commit and build.
Comprehensive Analysis: SAST tools provide a detailed analysis of the code,
identifying potential vulnerabilities in both proprietary code and third-party
dependencies, ensuring that known issues in libraries are addressed promptly.
References:
Question # 10
A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to
share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner
organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a
variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to
facilitate this activity? (Select two).
A. CWPP
B. YAKA
C. ATTACK
D. STIX
E. TAXII
F. JTAG
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
D. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized
language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable
format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is
consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E. TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a
transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a
secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the
exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A. CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud
workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing. B. YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but
it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
C. ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but
does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
F. JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not
related to threat intelligence.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"STIX and TAXII: The Backbone of Threat Intelligence Sharing" by MITRE
NIST SP 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
Question # 11
A security administrator needs to automate alerting. The server generates structured log
files that need to be parsed to determine whether an alarm has been triggered Given the
following code function:
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A
Explanation:
The code function provided in the question seems to be designed to parse JSON formatted
logs to check for an alarm state. Option A is a JSON format that matches the structure
likely expected by the code. The presence of the "error_log" and "InAlarmState" keys
suggests that this is the correct input format.
Reference: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide, Chapter on Log Management and
Automation, Section on Parsing Structured Logs.
Question # 12
A security analyst is troubleshooting the reason a specific user is having difficulty
accessing company resources The analyst reviews the following information:
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
A. The local network access has been configured to bypass MFA requirements.
B. A network geolocation is being misidentified by the authentication server
C. Administrator access from an alternate location is blocked by company policy
D. Several users have not configured their mobile devices to receive OTP codes
Answer: B
Explanation: The table shows that the user "SALES1" is consistently blocked despite
having met the MFA requirements. The common factor in these blocked attempts is the
source IP address (8.11.4.16) being identified as from Germany while the user is assigned
to France. This discrepancy suggests that the network geolocation is being misidentified by
the authentication server, causing legitimate access attempts to be blocked.
Why Network Geolocation Misidentification?
Geolocation Accuracy: Authentication systems often use IP geolocation to verify
the location of access attempts. Incorrect geolocation data can lead to legitimate
requests being denied if they appear to come from unexpected locations.
Security Policies: Company security policies might block access attempts from
certain locations to prevent unauthorized access. If the geolocation is wrong,
legitimate users can be inadvertently blocked. Consistent Pattern: The user "SALES1" from the IP address 8.11.4.16 is always
blocked, indicating a consistent issue with geolocation.
Other options do not align with the pattern observed:
A. Bypass MFA requirements: MFA is satisfied, so bypassing MFA is not the issue.
C. Administrator access policy: This is about user access, not specific
administrator access.
D. OTP codes: The user has satisfied MFA, so OTP code configuration is not the
issue.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Geolocation and Authentication," NIST Special Publication 800-63B
"IP Geolocation Accuracy," Cisco Documentation
Question # 13
A security architect is establishing requirements to design resilience in un enterprise
system trial will be extended to other physical locations. The system must
• Be survivable to one environmental catastrophe
• Re recoverable within 24 hours of critical loss of availability
• Be resilient to active exploitation of one site-to-site VPN solution
A. Load-balance connection attempts and data Ingress at internet gateways
B. Allocate fully redundant and geographically distributed standby sites.
C. Employ layering of routers from diverse vendors
D. Lease space to establish cold sites throughout other countries
E. Use orchestration to procure, provision, and transfer application workloads lo cloud services
F. Implement full weekly backups to be stored off-site for each of the company's sites
Answer: B
Explanation:
To design resilience in an enterprise system that can survive environmental catastrophes,
recover within 24 hours, and be resilient to active exploitation, the best strategy is to allocate fully redundant and geographically distributed standby sites. Here’s why:
Geographical Redundancy: Having geographically distributed standby sites
ensures that if one site is affected by an environmental catastrophe, the other sites
can take over, providing continuity of operations.
Full Redundancy: Fully redundant sites mean that all critical systems and data are
replicated, enabling quick recovery in the event of a critical loss of availability.
Resilience to Exploitation: Distributing resources across multiple sites reduces the
risk of a single point of failure and increases resilience against targeted attacks.
References:
Question # 14
Developers have been creating and managing cryptographic material on their personal
laptops fix use in production environment. A security engineer needs to initiate a more
secure process. Which of the following is the best strategy for the engineer to use?
A. Disabling the BIOS and moving to UEFI
B. Managing secrets on the vTPM hardware
C. Employing shielding lo prevent LMI
D. Managing key material on a HSM
Answer: D
Explanation: The best strategy for securely managing cryptographic material is to use a
Hardware Security Module (HSM). Here’s why:
Security and Integrity: HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed to protect
and manage digital keys. They provide high levels of physical and logical security,
ensuring that cryptographic material is well protected against tampering and
unauthorized access.
Centralized Key Management: Using HSMs allows for centralized management of
cryptographic keys, reducing the risks associated with decentralized and
potentially insecure key storage practices, such as on personal laptops.
Compliance and Best Practices: HSMs comply with various industry standards and
regulations (such as FIPS 140-2) for secure key management. This ensures that
the organization adheres to best practices and meets compliance requirements.
References:
Question # 15
A security operations engineer needs to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when
encrypted SSDs are reused within an enterprise. Which of the following is the most secure
way to achieve this goal?
A. Executing a script that deletes and overwrites all data on the SSD three times
B. Wiping the SSD through degaussing
C. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD
D. Writing non-zero, random data to all cells of the SSD
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most secure way to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are
reused is to securely delete the encryption keys used by the SSD. Without the encryption
keys, the data on the SSD remains encrypted and is effectively unreadable, rendering any
residual data useless. This method is more reliable and efficient than overwriting data
multiple times or using other physical destruction methods.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of managing
encryption keys and securely deleting them to protect data.
NIST Special Publication 800-88, "Guidelines for Media Sanitization":
Recommends cryptographic erasure as a secure method for sanitizing encrypted
storage devices.
